EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...


Question List

Question1: The modems in fax machines have trouble with VoIP.
Which product is used to overcome this problem?

Question2: Which two statements describe what is required to set up a Small Community Network (SCN) consisting of four IP500v2 control units? (Choose two.)

Question3: If ISDN/PRI calls are getting dropped, which tool should be used to troubleshoot the issue?

Question4: A customer tells you that the IP Office VoIP system has too much lag time between the speaker and listener.
Which two statements describe what you should do to find out what is causing the delay? (Choose two.)

Question5: Which application can be used to show available resources in an IP500v2?

Question6: A law enforcement organization wants full-time automated authenticated recordings of speech from people calling an anonymous tip line. They include the "Tip Line" as a selection in their auto attendant.
When setting up Avaya Contact Recorder to do this, which two steps are needed? (Choose two.)

Question7: Which two are required for IP Office to support a SIP IP hard telephone? (Choose two.)

Question8: Which configuration areas are required to be configured by Hot Desking users, Agents, and all VoIP device users?

Question9: In which folder on the system SD card would you place the firmware files (.bin) for an IP telephone?

Question10: When planning for Wide Area Network SCNs, which two are required? (Choose two.)

Question11: A customer is experiencing clipping and drop outs when speaking with a deskphone at remote site in an SCN.
Which two methods could a technician use to help identify the cause of the problem? (Choose two.)

Question12: Which outcome can be prevented with a correctly configured multi-site SCN solution?

Question13: Which three statements are requirements for installation of IP Office Server Edition on an Avaya Supplied server? (Choose three.)

Question14: Who is responsible for registering the system in GRT?

Question15: When a company's internal DNS is down, how can a SIP Remote Worker client still register with the IP Office through the WiFi connection?

Question16: When using the System Status Application to troubleshoot an issue, which two are used for collecting data? (Choose two.)

Question17: Which application will allow a system administrator to see historical events and alarms on a trunk in the IP Office?

Question18: When implementing a fully integrated multi-site network using only IP500 control units, which license is required to be on all sites?

Question19: Where is the TCP streaming Tool found?

Question20: What does checking STARTTLS field on the SMTP form do?

Question21: Which three licenses are part of Centralized Licensing? (Choose three.)

Question22: What do Distributed Voicemail Pro and the Central Voicemail Pro use to communicate?

Question23: Which three statements about IP Office Server Edition (non-Select) are true? (Choose three.)

Question24: The IP Office can monitor the QoS between Avaya IP Phones and from IP Phone to IP Office.
Which two actions must complete to see QoS results? (Choose two.)

Question25: Secure Digital (SD) card commands can be invoked from which two sources? (Choose two.)

Question26: In an SCN network with Distributed Voicemail, which two are required? (Choose two.)

Question27: What does "IMAP support" mean in the IP Office UMS service?

Question28: In the IP Office Manager program, which statement describes a condition that will enable the display of the Voicemail Recording tab?

Question29: Where can additional IP Office Service User logins be setup?

Question30: Which method can be used for upgrading the voice prompts on the Embedded Voicemail?

Question31: A user at a remote IP Office site calls in to discuss a voicemail issue. You launch the Manager program to see your multi-site IP Office network, but only your local IP Office appears.
What is causing this problem?

Question32: You are installing a Server Edition. The New Hardware screen detects the presence of a second hard drive.
For which application is this normally used?

Question33: Which call flow type has a web interface to retrieve information left by the caller?

Question34: If ContactStore is not running on the same server as Voicemail Pro, a registry key must be set in the ContactStore server.
What does the registry key do?

Question35: A remote worker with Avaya Windows Communicator visits their office headquarters where the IP Office and one-X Portal are located.
Which two technologies enable the worker to re-register locally? (Choose two.)

Question36: Which requirement for the web browser is used for Web Voicemail access?

Question37: You have just plugged in a new IP500v2, and you look at its Dashboard display to see the new device. No telephones are plugged into the unit.
Why are two ports in one of the modules green?

Question38: Which two email clients are supported for IP Office IMAP services? (Choose two.)

Question39: Before attempting to connect an IP Office to a one-X® Portal server, what must be checked?

Question40: Which method can be used to add new users to a Server Edition in Select mode?

Question41: Which method will avoid corruption of the data on the SD card when removing the SD card?

Question42: Refer to the exhibit.

You have configured enough SIP channels to carry the expected communications load, but users are reporting that sometimes they cannot call out and callers cannot get through.
Based on the information in the exhibit, what is causing the problem?

Question43: Which IP Office feature is required to initiate screen pops, where the caller ID triggers a computer to open a record related to that number?

Question44: When calls come into the customer's system, if the telephone number of the caller is in the customer's records, the customer wants those calls to be routed to a specific user.
Which voicemail action type is needed to configure this?

Question45: On a IP500 control unit that has 12 DS30 modules configured, what is the maximum number ISDN/PRI trunks that can be configured?

Question46: Which three licenses are made obsolete by Server Edition? (Choose three.)

Question47: Which statement about the Linux OS for IP Office is true?

Question48: Which two values affect the size of a ContactStore server? (Choose two.)

Question49: How can you find the IP address of an IP extension?

Question50: You have changed the default port numbers for UDP, TCP and TLS in the IP Office to support a SIP Remote worker.
Which two other items need to be changed? (Choose two.)

Question51: A user is testing a mobile telephone in a new deployment of Avaya Communicator. Calls can be made, but the Presence and Instant Messaging features do not work.
Which statement describes why the user cannot make the new features work?

Question52: Calls into the IP500 are not ringing to the expected user. Which statement describes how the call routing is validated?

Question53: Which default short code is used to toggle the modem function on the analog trunk card?

Question54: Which of the following provides the ability for a device to use screenpops, control several telephone devices, make 3rd party calls, and monitor hunt group queues?

Question55: Which statement is an example of "Top Down Troubleshooting" with an IP Phone that is not working?

Question56: Which item lets you see the progress of a software upgrade on an expansion system?

Question57: What is used to send out alarm notifications to you?

Question58: A company with 500 users has a single IP Office Server Edition providing telephony, presence and Instant Messaging, UMS, Conferencing, and Mobility support. They are buying a remote company with 400 users.
They want to support all the IP Office features for everyone.
To maintain Avaya support, what must be added to their server Edition?

Question59: From which application are log files required for escalating issues to Avaya support?

Question60: A customer has UMS enabled on their VoiceMail Pro server. They want to use Microsoft Outlook to retrieve voicemail messages, and are not using Microsoft Exchange as the message store.
Which protocol must be configured in Microsoft Outlook to access their messages?